SOWK 431 Quizzes

SOWK 431 Quiz 1 Social Work Assessment to Depressive Disorders

  1. A mental status exam examines all of the following except…
  2. When a social worker is unsure of a diagnosis the social worker should give a “provisional” qualifier indicating that the social worker needs more time or information to make a certain diagnosis.
  3. A _______ is a process by which a social worker or other human services professional systematical examines the quality of a client’s mental functioning.
  4. Any classification of mental, emotional, and behavioral disorders is likely to be flawed, because it is difficult for any system to capture the complexity of human life.
  5. The biopsychosocial framework holds only one advantage which is the provide theoretical basis for social workers to conceptualize human behavior at several levels.
  6. Heritability for major depression ranges from:
  7. Why is it important to find out the birth history of your client?
  8. The diagnosis features for ______ include persistent impairment in reciprocal social communication and social interaction, and restricted, repetitive patterns of behaviors, interests, or activities. These symptoms are present from early childhood and limit or impair everyday.
  9. ADHD is more frequent in females than in males in the general population, with a ratio of approximately 2:1 in children and 1.6:1 in adults.
  10. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is equal in men and women although bipolar II disorder is more common in women up to 6%.
  11. Women with bipolar disorder are more likely then men to have a comorbid disorder, because more of them are diagnosed with PTSD, eating, personality, and sleep disorders.
  12. What is the first line intervention for bipolar disorder, given the inability of persons at either end of the mood spectrum to effectively manage their thoughts and behaviors?
  13. What role does psychosocial interventions play in treating someone with bipolar disorder?
  14. Of all the disorders that may be experience in one’s lifetime, depression is the most common.
  15. The extent of variance that heritability explains for major depression ranges from?
  16. Adolescence is a period of risk for depression because it is the time when people develop formal operational thinking; they can reflect upon causality for events in their lives and assume a future orientation in which they may experience hopelessness about the future.
  17. Many people, particularly older adults, do not see depression as a health problem that can be treated but rather as a character weakness or a sign of being “crazy”.
  18. The initial stage of intervention for persons who are depressed is to assess for suicidal risk, which is associated with which of the following factors:
  19. When is it appropriate for a practitioner to recommend inpatient treatment for depression?
  20. What are some of the barriers to getting psychotherapy?
  21. What types of psychotherapies are appropriate and discussed in our text for treating depression?
  22. In studies conducted around effective treatment for depression, CBT performed as well as medication.
  23. Name one of the major critiques to the changes in the DSM V for depressive disorders.
  24. The following symptom fits with which diagnosis: A distinct period of abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive or irritable mood and abnormally and persistently increased activity or energy, lasting at least 4 consecutive days and present most of the day, nearly every day.
  25. The following symptoms fits predominantly with which diagnosis:
    Markedly diminished interest or pleasure in all, or almost all, activities most of the day, nearly every day.
  26. The following symptoms fits predominantly with which diagnosis:
  27. Catherine is a 38 year old married female with no children. ordered to attend treatment at the outpatient mental health clinic for individual or group anger management services. Two months ago, Catherine was charged with assault after stabbing her husband in the shoulder with a steak knife during an argument at a restaurant. She is also awaiting incarceration as a result of reckless driving without a license. She has been in jail on 5 different occasions for similar incidents. Catherin reports her mood is often irritable, but also “up and down”. Which of the following disorders would you evaluate Catherine for?
  28. Federal law mandates the provision of an Individualized Education Plan (IEP) for all children with Autism Spectrum Disorder.
  29. Medication for Autism Spectrum Disorder assists in changing the core features of the disorder.
  30. Which of the following behavior management interventions are recommended for a child diagnosed with Autism Spectrum Disorder?
  31. Children with ____ behave in a way that purposely annoys and antagonizes others, whereas ____ symptoms are displayed without regard to others.
  32. Some of the symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) may mimic those with ADHD.
  33. Which of the following are possible genetic indicators of ADHD?
  34. ADHD does not pose as a risk factor for self-harm and suicidality, including ideation and attempts.
  35. A part of psychoeducation for parents of children with ADHD includes all the following except:
  36. Assessing a client’s spirituality is important because it identifies some of the client’s strengths.
  37. A client comes in your office and is acting depressed through diminished interest and feeling hopelessness. As a social worker always assessing your client you:
  38. Low social economic status is associated with the development of a number of mental disorders such as oppositional defiant disorder and conduct disorder, ADHD, anxiety disorders, depression, and schizophrenia.
  39. Which of the following mental health care system includes mental hospitals, residential treatment facilities, psychiatric units of general hospitals, and specialized community agencies and programs?
  40. Which of the following mental health care system is responsible for regular prenatal care, childhood immunizations, and routine developmental screenings that protect against developmental disorders, such as intellectual disability and for the early determination of others, such as ASD?
  41. Which of the following mental health care system is comprised of social welfare, criminal justice, educational, religious, and charitable services?
  42. Which of the following mental health care system includes self-help groups and organizations devoted to education, communication, and support?
  43. Why is having a strength’s perspective important when working with mental health disorders?
  44. The client’s orientation to time, person, place, and situation; quality of general intellect; memory; ability to think abstractly; and quality of concentration is considered to be a part of:
  45. When completing a MSE the person’s thought is considered:
  46. A client’s appearance judges all of the following except:
  47. A syndrome characterized by clinically significant disturbance in an individuals cognition, emotion regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological, or developmental processes underlying mental function is the definition of:
  48. Competent use of the DSM V is beneficial for social workers because of the following reasons except:
  49. The biopsychosocial framework holds a number of advantages for the assessment of mental disorders.
  50. Brain imaging studies indicate that Autism Spectrum Disorder is associated with an enlarged overall brain size.

 

SOWK 431 Quiz 2 Anxiety to Eating Disorders

  1. Andrew is a 15 year old male enrolled in the 9th His mother has contacted an outpatient mental health agency because of his extreme fears of going to school. She stated that he has bot been able to attend a single day in the past 2 months. During your intake, Andrew was nervous and sweating profusely, but was friendly and mature. He smiled a lot, even when discussing painful subjects. He had minimal contact, however, focused instead on the floor. He identifies that he is afraid of larger class sizes in high school and large crowds. Which of the following disorders would you evaluate Andrew for?
  2. When assessing for anxiety in children, it is recommended that interviews should be conducted together with parents
  3. Separation anxiety in children have about ___ percent that persist into adulthood.
  4. When assessing for anxiety disorders the following should be a part of the assessment except:
  5. Typically, people who are diagnosed with Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) have not experienced a history of uncontrollable stress.
  6. Anxiety disorders also increase the risk of suicidality.
  7. Which of the following therapies have been studied to assist with anxiety?
  8. What is a disadvantage to using medication to treat anxiety?
  9. The following are common themes found in obsessive-compulsive disorder except:
  10. The social worker’s information-gathering about OCD should include:
  11. Families with children who have OCD tend to provide excessive reassurance, assist by avoiding triggers, and catering to the obsessions and compulsions, sometimes participating in rituals. This is important to assess and target as a reduction results in better treatment response.
  12. Obsessive-compulsive disorder typically develops in late adulthood.
  13. What is psychoeducation?
  14. In treating OCD which of the following could be a part of that treatment?
  15. OCD and hoarding disorders have their own groups in the DSM V.
  16. Which of the following develop when a person has PTSD?
  17. Increased arousal is a part of PTSD
  18. PTSD is the only disorder that is a result of trauma.
  19. Which of the following methods are appropriate treatment options for PTSD?
  20. Cognitive interventions aim to modify a client’s problematic cognitions involving self-blame, lack of safety, inability to trust, powerlessness, and loss of control.
  21. Crisis debriefing has been found to be helpful in working with children who have PTSD.
  22. People with eating disorders tend to be underdiagnosed and undertreated.
  23. Although eating disorders are more prevalent in females, males represent about 25% of cases.
  24. Bulimia is moderately heritable and more so then anorexia.
  25. Having a mental disorder puts one at risk for having an eating disorder.
  26. Goals for treating eating disorders include all of the following except:
  27. Treatment for eating disorders can only take place in inpatient facilities.
  28. is the emotional response to real or perceived imminent threat, where as _____ is the anticipation of future threat.
  29. If a client presents with an excessive anxiety and worry, occurring more days then not for at least 6 months, about a number of events or activites, you would assess them for what type of disorder?
  30. You can meet criteria for posttraumatic stress disorder if you have learned that a traumatic event occurred to a close family member or close friend when the event was violent or accidental.
  31. PTSD can only be diagnosed within 3 months of the event.
  32. What is the rate of recovery for generalized anxiety disorder?
  33. What is the probability of generalized anxiety reoccurring?
  34. Anxiety disorders are often comorbid with one another and with _____.
  35. Obsessive compulsive disorder has common comorbid disorders with all of the follow except:
  36. In adulthood, females are at a heightened risk for OCD than do males, although in childhood, rates between gender groups are similar.
  37. Obsessive-compulsive disorder typically develops in late adulthood.
  38. What is mindfulness?
  39. For adolescents specifically, according to the National Comorbidity Survey Replication Adolescent Supplement, 62 percent have experienced a traumatic event; however, rates of PTSD were only 4.7 percent.
  40. PTSD is the only disorder to have as a result of trauma.
  41. PTSD can present as ADHD, ODD, depression and bipolar, therefore carefully reviewing the symptoms can help distinguish the proper diagnosis.
  42. When treating PTSD, all exposure methods, however, share a common feature: the client confronts threatening stimuli until the anxiety is reduce.
  43. When was PTSD added to the DSM?
  44. The lifetime prevalence of bulimia is ___% of the population.
  45. The average age for bulimia and anorexia is 18.9.
  46. Involvement in certain activities that emphasize very low body fat, such as certain sports and dance, places an individual at risk for eating disorders.
  47. Suicide is not a risk of eating disorders.
  48. Partial hospitalization is the first-line treatment for eating disorders.
  49. Despite research, experienced clinicians do not find CBT as a useful as described in research for treating eating disorders.
  50. One of the challenges faced by those involved in preventing eating disorders is the difficulty of changing the dieting and weight preoccupations that are so culturally pervasive.

 

 

SOWK 431 Quiz 3 Conduct Disorders to Personality Disorders

  1. Social workers should only interview parents when assessing for ODD or CD.
  2. In regards to ODD and CD, when a child has had a recent stressful life event, social workers should consider:
  3. Approximately _____ percent of youths with ODD will later develop CD.
  4. Which of the follow interventions are shown to be effective?
  5. Which of the following is a common comorbid disorder with ODD and CD?
  6. Oppositional behaviors should be distinguished from disruptive behaviors associated with ADHD, which occur in response to frustrations associated with inattention and hyperactivity
  7. Living in poor and disadvantaged communities poses substantial risks for antisocial behavior in children in terms of unemployment, community disorganization, availability of drugs, the presence of adults involved in crime, community violence, and racial prejudice.
  8. Medication cannot help youth with CD or ODD.
  9. Females may be underrecognized for CD because the presentation of CD is less noticeable.
  10. Which of the following is a critique to the DSM V’s ODD and CD disorders?
  11. If a client presented with the following symptoms, which disorder would you evaluate for:
    A repetitive and persistent pattern of behavior in which the basic rights of others or major age- appropriate societal norms or rules are violated, as manifested by the presence of at least three of the following criteria: Aggression to people and animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness or theft, and serious violations of rules.
  12. The essential feature of oppositional defiant disorder is frequent and persistent pattern of angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, or vindictiveness.
  13. he first symptoms of oppositional defiant disorder usually appear during the early adolescence years and rarely in the early preschool years.
  14. ODD is persistent throughout development, individuals with this disorder experience frequent conflicts with parents, teachers, supervisors, peers, and romantic partners.
  15. The essential feature of conduct disorder is repetitive and persistent patterns of behavior in which the basic rights of others or major age-appropriate societal norms or rules are violated.
  16. The intervention of social information process for CD or ODD involves all of the following except:
  17. Substance use disorders are the first most diagnosed group of disorder in the United States.
  18. There are possible mental health risks, such as psychotic symptoms and short-term cognitive impairments associated with marijuana use.
  19. What percentage of overdoses from opioids came from prescriptions?
  20. What disorders are often associated with substance use disorders?
  21. Which of the following are appropriate interventions for substance use disorders?
  22. Social workers should be aware that people with depression may be slower to benefit from treatment and that depression may impede recovery.
  23. Families do not have tremendous potential impact on either perpetuating or ameliorating the substance use problems of a family member.
  24. What are the types of medication used to treat substance use?
  25. What are some of the risk factors for substance use disorders?
  26. What is considered high risk drinking?
  27. The essential feature of a substance use disorder is a cluster of cognitive, behavioral, and physiological symptoms indicating that the individual continues using the substances despite significant substance- related problems.
  28. It is estimated that 1 in 7 intensive care unit admissions in some urban hosptials is related to alcohol.
  29. Borderline Personality Disorder is experienced by ___ of the general population.
  30. Borderline Personality Disorder o-occurs most often with:
  31. Between 60% to 70% of people with Borderline Personality Disorder have a history of suicide attempts.
  32. What is one of the challenges to interventions when it comes to treating someone who has Borderline Personality Disorder?
  33. Out of the following interventions, which one is seen as superior to the other psychodynamic interventions for treating borderline personality disorder?
  34. Which of the following is critique to borderline personality disorder?
  35. A personality disorder is an enduring pattern of inner experience and behavior that deviates markedly from the expectations of the individuals’ culture, is pervasive and inflexible, has an onset in adolescence or early adulthood, is stable over time, and leads to distress or impairment.
  36. Borderline personality disorder does not have any biological factors.
  37. A client’s ethnic, cultural, and social backgrounds should not be taken into account when assessing for personality disorders.
  38. When a client is not wanting to do inpatient treatment for substance abuse disorders what is the next steps a social worker should take?
  39. It is important to remember when assessing for CD or ODD, children tend to down play their symptoms.
  40. What are the social influence risks for CD and ODD?
  41. In 2015, ________ people died from prescription opioid overdose.
  42. What theories have been postulated to explain high comorbidity between substance use and other mental disorders?
  43. A conservative position is to wait after 6 weeks of sobriety to determine the presence of comorbid disorders, although this is rarely practiced.
  44. When assessing for substance use in children/adolescences, the interview of the parent and child should be done separately.
  45. What percentage of people with alcohol dependency receive treatment?
  46. What are possible goals for adolescents who abuse substances?
  47. When considering treatment for substance use treatment which of the follow should be considered?
  48. For clients with depression and anxiety, CBT can address both the psychiatric and substance use concerns.
  49. The initial phase of substance use treatment may be crucial to successful engagement and retention, so developing interventions that focus on improving early success in clients who are depressed may be beneficial.
  50. Medication for borderline personality disorders have been FDA approved.

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