JURI 550 Quizzes 1,2,3,4

JURI 550 Quizzes 1,2,3,4

JURI 550 Quizzes Liberty Updated for 2023

JURI 550 Quiz 1 Introduction to Property Personal Property

1. When an adverse possessor first openly takes possession of chattel, this act has which of the following legal consequences in the majority of states?
2. The capture rule relates to how the common law dealt with …
3. Which of the following groups of factors is the legally accepted guide for courts to analyze whether a finder has obtained rights in found property?
4. A non-owner of personal property can lawfully possess an item of personal property. Which of the following lists most completely identifies the types of a non-owner’s possession that are lawful?
5. If we assume that a spam email has been held by a court to be a trespass to chattels, then which of the following will most likely not be considered to be a trespass to chattels?
6. Most states require a bailee to exercise which of the following standards of care?
7. Wild animals are rarely the subject of litigation in modern times. The utility of understanding the law regarding wild animals is:
8. Which of the following statements is the most accurate regarding the bundle of property rights?
9. The doctrine of adverse possession of personal property is problematic due to the chattel’s portability and the likelihood that the possessor’s use of the chattel may not give notice to the owner. The law in a few states seeks to reduce or eliminate these problems by which of the following?
10. Government now regulates hunting and fishing. As a result, governmental regulation is not consistent with the capture rule.
11. Arden lost her gold wedding ring and Mrs. Boyd found it. Later, Mrs. Boyd moved the ring from her coat pocket to her purse, which had a hole in it. Boyd lost the ring and it was found by Mr. Campbell. Which statement most accurately describes the court’s likely ruling in a lawsuit by Boyd against Campbell?
12. Which of the following explains why a bona fide purchaser of an item of personal property will prevail over the true owner in certain transactions?
13. In a case where a person seeks a judgment awarding him/her with ownership of another’s personal property, which of the following does not help the person’s case:
14. The common law rule does not protect bona fide purchasers because a seller cannot pass on a better title to personal property than what he/she has at the time of the transaction between the seller and the bona fide purchaser. Is this true or false?
15. The Uniform Commercial Code provides protection for bona fide purchasers under certain circumstances. Is this true or false?
16. The least accurate definition of the traditional categories of found property is which of the following?
17. The decision in the Moore v. U.C. Regents case about the dilemma in property law concerning body tissue is expressed in which of the following statements?
18. Which of the following doctrines favors the person who is a diligent worker?
19. Custom proved to be critical to the judicial decision in which of the following cases regarding the ownership of wild animals?
20. The key take-away rule from the Pierson v. Post case is most accurately stated in which of the following statements?
21. Bailment is the lawful possession of real property. True or false?
22. Even if it is proven that the original owner of an item of personal property abandoned the property, he nonetheless will win a court judgment against the finder of the property because he was the original owner. Is this true or false?
23. Property rights are often referred to as the metaphorical bundle of sticks, as Chapter 1 of the text points out. If one of the sticks is the right to destroy the property that a person owns, which of the following statements is the most accurate?
24. Which of the following is accurate regarding accession rules?
25. The most complete list of the common law traditional categories of found property is which of the following?

JURI 550 Quiz 2 Landlord-Tenant Law

1. Since leases are a conveyance of real property, the lease agreement must be in writing because the Statute of Frauds applies to all such conveyances.
2. One of the following so-called landlord-tenant relationships has the least characteristics of a tenancy. Which one?
3. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about a commercial tenant’s transfer of his leasehold interest?
4. With regard to possession of leased premises, the majority of states require which of the following?
5. A written residential lease must expressly state the implied warranty of habitability to be enforceable. True or False?
6. Summary eviction proceedings have been upheld by the U.S. Supreme Court. The additional significant points of the Court’s holding—besides the issues related to summary eviction, self-help, and bonds— include:
7. A residential tenant can abandon the rented dwelling at the time of his choosing even if he owes further obligations to the landlord. True or false?
8. Before a tenant can make a claim of constructive eviction or breach of the implied warranty of habitability, the tenant must:
9. Given the revolution in landlord-tenant law over the past century, a tenant is afforded greater protection under case law and statutes. Thus, a landlord must obtain the tenant’s consent—which cannot be unreasonably withheld—before the landlord conveys his title to the premises to a buyer.
10. Which of the following statements is correct?
11. The implied warranty of habitability provides a range of remedy options for a tenant. The remedies include:
12. Which true tenancy does not require notice of termination?
13. As a result of the significant revolution in landlord-tenant law, which of the following is the most accurate statement of what is permissible in most states?
14. The majority of courts hold the landlord who is in the business of renting premises to residential tenants strictly liable for latent defects that existed at the formation of the tenancy and which resulted in injury to the tenant.
15. Which of the following statements is correct?
16. The characteristics of the common law tenancy at will leasehold interest are best described by which of the following statements?
17. Discrimination in the renting or selling of a residential dwelling is prohibited in which of the following circumstances?
18. Under modern law, residential tenants are provided greater protection regarding the payment of rent. This is so, because of which concept below?
19. The contract law concept of mitigation applies to which of the following circumstances?
20. Which of the following statements is the most accurate after the modern revolution in residential landlord-tenant law?
21. The characteristics of a periodic tenancy leasehold interest are best described by which of the following statements?
22. A tenancy at sufferance becomes a leasehold interest when a holdover tenant and the landlord agree to a renewal of their expired tenancy.
23. Landlord Larsen owned an office building and Tilley was a tenant. The private trash company hired by Larsen placed the office building’s large trash dumpsters in the parking spaces allotted to tenant Tilley. The trash company repeatedly did this two to three days a week, for six months. In the second month Tilley sent Larsen a letter that complained about the dumpsters and insisted that Larsen make the parking spaces available to Tilley’s customers. When the spaces remained unavailable for another month after the letter, Tilley moved to a new location. A court will likely conclude …
24. The most important change in the development of landlord-tenant law in the modern era has been:
25. The Civil Rights Act of 1968 and the Civil Rights Act of 1866 are identical with regard to the scope of prohibition of racial discrimination?

JURI 550 Quiz 3 Property Purchase Transaction

1. “Closing the transaction” is the last stage of a purchase-sale transaction. As far as the buyer is concerned, the most important document at closing is the deed. A buyer would prefer:
2. After a buyer and seller sign a real estate purchase-sale contract it is often the case that one of the parties wants to back out of the contract. The other party most likely will sue for the remedy of specific performance. Which of the following is incorrect regarding specific performance?
3. A recorded quitclaim deed is considered to put would-be purchasers on inquiry notice by most jurisdictions under the modern approach. True or false?
4. Regarding the modern view about disclosures of the condition of the property that is the subject of the sale contract, which of the following is inaccurate?
5. Title insurance is the dominant method of title protection in the United States. Which of the following statements accurately describes the protection afforded by title insurance?
6. From the perspective of the borrower, the benefit of a mortgage in the event of the borrower’s default on the loan is:
7. During the escrow period when the parties are preparing to close the transaction, the common law rule will impose the risk of property damage or loss on the buyer unless the purchase-sale contract states otherwise. This is known as:
8. Registration of title is essential to maintain a clear chain of title ownership and to protect the most recent owner who just closed on the purchase of real property. A small minority of states organizes each real property’s chain of title and encumbrances by using which of the following systems:
9. During the escrow period when the parties are preparing to close the transaction, the seller will be required to disclose the condition of the property in most transactions. In most states the seller will be held to which disclosure standard?
10. A vendee can negotiate a land installment contract to protect him from some of the vendor’s preferred terms. However, a vendee must rely on courts in some jurisdictions to interpret which of the following contract terms to protect him?
11. A title insurance policy provides the following benefits to the insured person, except:
12. At what point does a deed become effective? Which of the following lists identifies the minimal set of elements for the deed to be effective?
13. Under the common law, which of the following is the most accurate statement?
14. As the buyer and seller are “preparing for the closing”, they will be most concerned with:
15. At the closing of the transaction, the purpose of recording the deed is:
16. During the escrow period when the parties are preparing to close the transaction, both the buyer and seller are interested in determining as soon as possible whether the buyer can purchase the property with cash or finance the purchase with a loan. If the buyer will finance the purchase, the documents that are essential for the buyer to satisfy the purchase-sale contract and to close the transaction are:
17. From the perspective of the lender, the benefit of a mortgage is that the lender is contractually entitled to pursue a judicial foreclosure or a non- judicial foreclosure if the borrower defaults on the loan.
18. In most modern transactions involving the sale of real property, which combination of title covenants is the most likely to be used as the bases of a claim by the grantee of a warranty deed against his grantor?
19. The typical sales contract will contain a condition precedent regarding the quality of title that seller will transfer to buyer. What is this contingency clause in the contract intended to do?
20. A contract for the sale of real estate is enforceable in which of the following situations:
21. “Negotiating the contract” follows the “Locating the Buyer” stage in a real property purchase-sale transaction. The general rule is that the purchase-sale contract must include:
22. In the event that the purchase-sale contract does not include a provision regarding the quality of title, courts will imply the condition of marketable title, which is:
23. Among the four basic stages of a real property purchase-sale transaction, the starting point is “locating the buyer”. Which of the following documents can assist the seller in locating a buyer?
24. A seller of real estate has the option to transfer title to the subject property to the buyer using one of the types of deeds described below. Which of the following statements is accurate?
25. When a buyer-borrower executes the promissory note and the mortgage instrument for a $100,000 loan, most courts will make which of the following conclusions about the formation of the loan agreement?

JURI 550 Quiz 4 Government Land Use Regulation

1. The central rule of Village of Euclid v. Ambler Realty declares that:
2. A local government’s economic redevelopment plan is constitutionally valid, unless:
3. A governmental action that regulates land use can result in which of the following court judgments?
4. Which of the following statements is true?
5. Newly enacted comprehensive zoning creates a problem for many landowners whose pre-existing uses and structures are now unlawful. Landowners can solve the problem by:
6. According to the U.S. Supreme Court, the Dolan v. City of Tigard rule stands for:
7. A local government is justified in its disapproval of a landowner’s application for an area variance on which basis stated below?
8. If zoning is valid as a matter of federal constitutional law, it is so because:
9. In Lucas v. South Carolina Coastal Council, the U.S. Supreme Court stated that it is not necessary to conduct a factual inquiry even when government’s land use regulation is a categorical taking that results in the physical invasion of the private property or in the denial of all economically beneficial or productive use of the property.
10. The central point of the Lucas v. South Carolina Coastal Council case is completely stated as:
11. An owner who wants to build on his land can be deprived of the building permit if the government denial of the permit is based on proof of:
12. When land use regulations impact the content of speech of a landowner’s use of his land, the U.S. Supreme Court has held that such a regulation may be constitutionally valid if the government shows a compelling governmental interest, the interest is advanced by the regulation, and the regulation is no broader than necessary to serve that interest.
13. The law of exactions imposes the burden of proof on the government to prove that the demands it is making on the landowner who seeks to build on his property are valid. What must government prove?
14. The Penn Central Transp. Co. v. New York City court held:
15. The key rule to take away from the Kelo v. City of New London case is:
16. The Kelo v. City of New London ruling creates the possibility that:
17. State governments may not establish standards for eminent domain that are different than what the U.S. Supreme Court has set.
18. A landowner who obtains a building permit and who acts on the permit by spending lots of money on his/her project, will be entitled to …
19. The Standard State Zoning Enabling Act was a model act for states to adopt. What did states want to accomplish when they adopted the Act (or variations of it)?
20. Most jurisdictions consider just compensation for a governmental taking of property to include which of the following?
21. The Nollan v. California Coastal Commission and the Dolan v. City of Tigard cases establish rules that are meant to:
22. When local government for the first time enacts a zoning law that creates zoning districts, many landowners will find that the use of their respective properties does not conform to the new regulations. Thus, in a lawsuit that claims a regulatory taking has occurred, the landowners would be entitled to:
23. In a regulatory taking case brought by the landowner against the government because the regulation reduces the land’s value, the taking of private property will be adjudged by what standard?
24. In Penn Central, which of the following is not part of the judicial analysis to determine the constitutionality of a land use regulation?
25. A landowner whose use is unusual but in accordance with the local zoning code will seek a variance from the local authorities, while a landowner whose use deviates from the zoning regulations will seek a special exception.